Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 16:20
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Has your wife made you a cuckold?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why did Donald Trump look so old during the debate?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Are you afraid of being alone?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.